INTERNATIONAL AFFAIRS – MCQs

  1. PM Narendra Modi’s 2025 three-nation tour included visits to Cyprus, Canada, and which other European country?
    a) Poland
    b) Croatia
    c) Austria
    d) Hungary
    e) Portugal
    Answer: b) Croatia
  2. Who invited PM Modi for the official visit to Cyprus in June 2025?
    a) Demetris Christofias
    b) Nicos Anastasiades
    c) Nikos Christodoulides
    d) Mark Carney
    e) Andrej Plenković
    Answer: c) Nikos Christodoulides
  3. Which agreement was signed between NSE International Exchange at GIFT City and the Cyprus Stock Exchange?
    a) Cross-border education exchange
    b) UPI transaction framework
    c) Collaboration in financial services
    d) Trade and agriculture cooperation
    e) Cultural exchange program
    Answer: c) Collaboration in financial services
  4. During PM Modi’s visit, NPCI International signed an MoU with which Cypriot bank to introduce UPI?
    a) Hellenic Bank
    b) Eurobank Cyprus
    c) Alpha Bank Cyprus
    d) Bank of Cyprus
    e) Central Bank of Cyprus
    Answer: b) Eurobank Cyprus
  5. Which Canadian leader invited PM Modi for his two-day visit in June 2025?
    a) Justin Trudeau
    b) Pierre Poilievre
    c) Mark Joseph Carney
    d) Jagmeet Singh
    e) Andrew Scheer
    Answer: c) Mark Joseph Carney
  6. What major step was agreed upon by India and Canada during PM Modi’s visit in June 2025?
    a) Signing a Free Trade Agreement
    b) Launching Indo-Canadian Defence Corridor
    c) Reappointing High Commissioners
    d) Granting dual citizenship
    e) Joint Arctic research programme
    Answer: c) Reappointing High Commissioners
  7. Which country did PM Modi visit for the first-ever by an Indian PM in June 2025?
    a) Malta
    b) Croatia
    c) Slovenia
    d) Cyprus
    e) Iceland
    Answer: b) Croatia
  8. How many agreements were signed between India and Croatia during PM Modi’s visit?
    a) Two
    b) Three
    c) Four
    d) Five
    e) Six
    Answer: c) Four
  9. Which of the following was NOT an area covered in India-Croatia MoUs signed in June 2025?
    a) Agriculture
    b) Science & Technology cooperation
    c) Defence industrial production
    d) Cultural exchange
    e) Hindi Chair establishment at Zagreb University
    Answer: c) Defence industrial production
  10. In which city did PM Modi receive Cyprus’s highest civilian honour?
    a) Nicosia
    b) Limassol
    c) Larnaca
    d) Paphos
    e) Famagusta
    Answer: a) Nicosia

  1. Which Indian university ranked highest among Indian institutions in THE Impact Rankings 2025?
    a) IIT Madras
    b) Lovely Professional University
    c) Amrita Vishwa Vidyapeetham
    d) JSS Academy of Higher Education & Research
    e) Shoolini University
    Answer: c) Amrita Vishwa Vidyapeetham
  2. What was Amrita Vishwa Vidyapeetham’s global rank in THE Impact Rankings 2025?
    a) 36
    b) 41
    c) 48
    d) 56
    e) 96
    Answer: b) 41
  3. Which Indian university secured 48th place in THE Impact Rankings 2025?
    a) Amrita Vishwa Vidyapeetham
    b) JSS Academy of Higher Education & Research
    c) Lovely Professional University
    d) Shoolini University
    e) Christ University
    Answer: c) Lovely Professional University
  4. Which Himachal Pradesh-based university entered the global top 100 in THE Impact Rankings 2025?
    a) Himachal Pradesh University
    b) Shoolini University
    c) Jaypee University
    d) Eternal University
    e) Indus International University
    Answer: b) Shoolini University
  5. Which global university topped THE Impact Rankings 2025 for the fourth consecutive year?
    a) University of Manchester
    b) Kyungpook National University
    c) University of Tasmania
    d) Western Sydney University
    e) Griffith University
    Answer: d) Western Sydney University

BANKING & FINANCE – MCQs

  1. From which date will the RBI (Project Finance) Directions, 2025 come into effect?
    a) 1 July 2025
    b) 1 September 2025
    c) 1 October 2025
    d) 1 January 2026
    e) 31 March 2026
    Answer: c) 1 October 2025
  2. Under the final norms, general provisions during the construction phase on CRE exposures shall be—
    a) 0.40%
    b) 0.75%
    c) 1.00%
    d) 1.25%
    e) 2.00%
    Answer: d) 1.25%
  3. During construction, the required general provision for CRE-RH and “other portfolio” respectively is—
    a) 0.75% and 0.40%
    b) 1.00% and 1.00%
    c) 1.25% and 0.40%
    d) 1.00% and 0.75%
    e) 0.40% and 1.25%
    Answer: b) 1.00% and 1.00%
  4. In the operational phase after repayment starts, the general provision on CRE projects should be—
    a) 0.40%
    b) 0.75%
    c) 1.00%
    d) 1.25%
    e) Nil
    Answer: c) 1.00%
  5. In the operational phase, general provision on CRE-RH projects should be—
    a) 0.40%
    b) 0.75%
    c) 1.00%
    d) 1.25%
    e) 2.00%
    Answer: b) 0.75%
  6. In the operational phase, “all other projects” (non-CRE / non-CRE-RH) require a general provision of—
    a) 0.25%
    b) 0.40%
    c) 0.50%
    d) 0.75%
    e) 1.00%
    Answer: b) 0.40%
  7. The RBI’s 2025 project finance framework applies to which set of lenders?
    a) Only public sector banks
    b) Only scheduled commercial banks
    c) Banks and NBFCs only
    d) Banks, NBFCs, cooperative banks, and all other regulated entities
    e) Only AIFIs
    Answer: d) Banks, NBFCs, cooperative banks, and all other regulated entities
  8. The final 2025 Directions were preceded by draft guidelines issued in—
    a) March 2023
    b) May 2024
    c) July 2024
    d) January 2025
    e) April 2025
    Answer: b) May 2024
  9. The BoM–SBI Card partnership will offer co-branded cards accessible primarily through—
    a) Only BoM branches
    b) Only SBI branches
    c) Online and BoM branches
    d) Only business correspondents
    e) RBI’s retail platform
    Answer: c) Online and BoM branches
  10. A key feature not explicitly highlighted for BoM–SBI co-branded cards is—
    a) Reward points
    b) Cashback
    c) Fuel surcharge waiver
    d) Free life insurance on deposits
    e) EMI facilities
    Answer: d) Free life insurance on deposits
  11. Which entity contributes the credit card issuance expertise in the BoM co-branding pact?
    a) NPCI
    b) SBI Card
    c) RuPay
    d) Visa
    e) Mastercard
    Answer: b) SBI Card
  12. FAB’s eMACH.ai implementation aims to fully automate debt collection by—
    a) 2026
    b) 2027
    c) 2028
    d) 2029
    e) 2030
    Answer: e) 2030
  13. The eMACH.ai platform deployed at FAB is best described as—
    a) On-prem monolith with limited APIs
    b) Composable, cloud-native microservices architecture
    c) Legacy SOA over ESB only
    d) Mainframe-centric batch system
    e) Edge-only serverless mesh
    Answer: b) Composable, cloud-native microservices architecture
  14. Approximate building blocks in FAB’s eMACH.ai deployment include—
    a) 32 microservices, 175 APIs, 53 events
    b) 129 microservices, 757 APIs, 135 events
    c) 329 microservices, 1,757 APIs, 535 events
    d) 529 microservices, 2,757 APIs, 735 events
    e) 729 microservices, 3,757 APIs, 935 events
    Answer: c) 329 microservices, 1,757 APIs, 535 events
  15. A primary operational benefit cited for FAB’s platform is—
    a) Eliminating all credit risk
    b) Real-time visibility into the credit portfolio
    c) Switching card network in real time
    d) Free consumer loans
    e) Outsourcing all recovery actions
    Answer: b) Real-time visibility into the credit portfolio
READ MORE  Current Affairs Today: 3rd May 2025 | Daily GK Update

ECONOMY & BUSINESS – MCQs

  1. Tata Elxsi–Infineon’s MoU targets EV solutions tailored primarily for—
    a) EU luxury cars only
    b) Indian 2W/3W, PV, and CV segments
    c) Only electric buses
    d) Only eVTOL
    e) Only off-highway mining trucks
    Answer: b) Indian 2W/3W, PV, and CV segments
  2. The partnership’s safety compliance aims at which functional safety standard?
    a) ISO 9001
    b) ISO 14001
    c) ISO 26262 ASIL-D
    d) IATF 16949
    e) IEC 61508 SIL-3
    Answer: c) ISO 26262 ASIL-D
  3. Which key technology contribution is attributed to Infineon in the MoU?
    a) Solid-state batteries
    b) SiC devices, MCUs, and ICs
    c) Hydrogen fuel stacks
    d) Graphene supercapacitors
    e) Wireless charging pads only
    Answer: b) SiC devices, MCUs, and ICs
  4. Tata Elxsi’s core role in the collaboration is—
    a) Semiconductor fabrication
    b) Cell chemistry development
    c) System integration, validation, and design
    d) Copper mining supply
    e) EV policy regulation
    Answer: c) System integration, validation, and design
  5. Stated national targets referenced in the MoU include electrification of 2W/3W by 2030 at—
    a) 40%
    b) 60%
    c) 70%
    d) 80%
    e) 90%
    Answer: d) 80%
  6. The partnership may later extend to which sectors beyond road EVs?
    a) eVTOL, energy, off-highway
    b) Maritime shipping only
    c) Railway locomotives only
    d) Space launchers
    e) Nuclear energy
    Answer: a) eVTOL, energy, off-highway

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY – MCQs

  1. ISRO’s first full rocket ToT to an Indian company transfers which vehicle to HAL?
    a) PSLV
    b) GSLV Mk-III
    c) SSLV
    d) Reusable Launch Vehicle
    e) ASLV
    Answer: c) SSLV
  2. The value of the HAL–ISRO SSLV ToT agreement is approximately—
    a) Rs 211 crore
    b) Rs 321 crore
    c) Rs 411 crore
    d) Rs 511 crore
    e) Rs 611 crore
    Answer: d) Rs 511 crore
  3. Post-2027, HAL plans to manufacture per year approximately—
    a) 1–2 SSLVs
    b) 3–5 SSLVs
    c) 6–12 SSLVs
    d) 12–24 SSLVs
    e) 25+ SSLVs
    Answer: c) 6–12 SSLVs
  4. During the two-year transition, ISRO’s support to HAL does not include—
    a) Training
    b) Technical support
    c) Building two prototypes
    d) Vendor selection for HAL forever
    e) Know-how transfer
    Answer: d) Vendor selection for HAL forever
  5. Commercial operations for SSLV under the ToT will be managed by—
    a) HAL Corporate Office
    b) Antrix Corporation
    c) NewSpace India Limited (NSIL)
    d) IN-SPACe exclusively
    e) DRDO
    Answer: c) NewSpace India Limited (NSIL)
  6. SSLV’s terminal stage is called—
    a) PS4
    b) Apogee Kick Motor
    c) Velocity Trimming Module
    d) Liquid Apogee Engine
    e) Cryo Finisher
    Answer: c) Velocity Trimming Module
  7. SSLV can place up to ~500 kg into—
    a) GTO
    b) GEO
    c) MEO
    d) 500 km LEO
    e) Molniya orbit
    Answer: d) 500 km LEO
  8. SSLV’s diameter and length are approx.—
    a) 2.1 m and 34 m
    b) 1.8 m and 28 m
    c) 3.2 m and 42 m
    d) 4.0 m and 50 m
    e) 5.0 m and 52 m
    Answer: a) 2.1 m and 34 m
  9. Which private Indian companies previously built rockets before HAL’s ToT?
    a) Skyroot & Agnikul
    b) Pixxel & Bellatrix
    c) TeamIndus & Astrogate
    d) Dhruva & Bellatrix
    e) Kawa & Vesta
    Answer: a) Skyroot & Agnikul
  10. Chairman & MD of HAL at the time of the ToT signing—
    a) C.B. Ananthakrishnan
    b) Dr. D.K. Sunil
    c) S. Somanath
    d) A.K. Patel
    e) Pawan Goenka
    Answer: b) Dr. D.K. Sunil
  11. GalaxEye’s 2nd EO satellite targets ground sampling of—
    a) 5.0 m
    b) 2.5 m
    c) 1.25 m
    d) 0.5 m
    e) 0.25 m
    Answer: d) 0.5 m
  12. The revisit goal for GalaxEye’s 2nd satellite is under—
    a) 12 days
    b) 7 days
    c) 5 days
    d) 3 days
    e) 1 day
    Answer: d) 3 days
  13. Mission Dhrishti (first satellite) is slated to launch via—
    a) SSLV
    b) PSLV
    c) GSLV
    d) SpaceX
    e) Vega-C
    Answer: d) SpaceX
  14. The first GalaxEye satellite’s nominal resolution is around—
    a) 0.5 m
    b) 0.8 m
    c) 1.25 m
    d) 2.0 m
    e) 5.0 m
    Answer: c) 1.25 m
  15. GalaxEye’s “SyncFusion” combines—
    a) LiDAR + thermal
    b) SAR + optical
    c) RF + GNSS
    d) Hyperspectral + UV
    e) SWIR + MWIR
    Answer: b) SAR + optical
  16. A newly announced market focus for GalaxEye includes—
    a) Antarctica logistics
    b) Deep-sea mining
    c) US, West Asia, Europe defence
    d) Lunar prospecting
    e) Submarine cable mapping
    Answer: c) US, West Asia, Europe defence
  17. Voyager 1 detected a thin region of superheated plasma informally dubbed—
    a) Heliopause Furnace
    b) Wall of Fire
    c) Plasma Veil
    d) Solar Rampart
    e) Interstellar Sheet
    Answer: b) Wall of Fire
  18. Approximate temperature range in the “Wall of Fire” measured—
    a) 3,000–5,000 K
    b) 10,000–20,000 K
    c) 30,000–50,000 K
    d) 80,000–100,000 K
    e) >1,000,000 K
    Answer: c) 30,000–50,000 K
  19. Voyager 1’s plasma instrument failure was compensated by which instruments?
    a) Infrared spectrometer
    b) Cosmic ray sensor & magnetometer
    c) UV photometer & camera
    d) Dust analyzer & neutral atom imager
    e) Solar sail telemetry
    Answer: b) Cosmic ray sensor & magnetometer
  20. Voyager 1 crossed the heliopause and entered interstellar space in—
    a) 2008
    b) 2010
    c) 2012
    d) 2014
    e) 2016
    Answer: c) 2012
  21. A confirmatory observation of similar boundary signatures came later from—
    a) Juno
    b) Parker Solar Probe
    c) Voyager 2
    d) New Horizons
    e) Cassini
    Answer: c) Voyager 2
READ MORE  daily current affairs today July 12 2024

ENVIRONMENT – MCQs

  1. The herpetofauna survey (June 7–10, 2025) occurred in which reserve?
    a) Silent Valley NP
    b) Periyar Tiger Reserve
    c) Bandipur Tiger Reserve
    d) Anamalai Tiger Reserve
    e) Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
    Answer: b) Periyar Tiger Reserve
  2. Total area covered in the PTR survey was closest to—
    a) 365 sq km
    b) 565 sq km
    c) 765 sq km
    d) 865 sq km
    e) 965 sq km
    Answer: e) 965 sq km
  3. Number of newly documented species reported in the survey—
    a) 4
    b) 6
    c) 8
    d) 10
    e) 12
    Answer: c) 8
  4. Among the newly recorded taxa, amphibians to reptiles ratio was—
    a) 3:5
    b) 5:3
    c) 6:2
    d) 4:4
    e) 2:6
    Answer: b) 5:3
  5. Which of the following is a newly documented amphibian?
    a) Cnemaspis rashidi
    b) Dravidogecko beddomei
    c) Microhyla darrelli
    d) Dravidogecko meghamalaiensis
    e) Cnemaspis wynadensis
    Answer: c) Microhyla darrelli
  6. Which of the following is not among the newly recorded reptiles?
    a) Rashid’s Day Gecko
    b) Meghamalai Dravidogecko
    c) Beddome’s Dravidogecko
    d) Yellow-eyed Reed Frog
    e) —
    Answer: d) Yellow-eyed Reed Frog (it’s an amphibian sighting, not a newly recorded reptile)
  7. Approximate percentage of amphibians recorded that are endemic to Western Ghats—
    a) ~40%
    b) ~50%
    c) ~60%
    d) ~80%
    e) ~90%
    Answer: d) ~80%
  8. One endangered reptile noted in the survey list is—
    a) Vijayachelys silvatica (Cane Turtle)
    b) Python bivittatus
    c) Varanus komodoensis
    d) Crocodylus palustris
    e) Ophiophagus hannah
    Answer: a) Vijayachelys silvatica (Cane Turtle)
  9. Which rare amphibian’s tadpoles were recorded at six locations?
    a) Galaxy Frog
    b) Mahabali Frog
    c) Raorchestes chalazodes
    d) Indirana gundia
    e) Micrixalus saxicola
    Answer: b) Mahabali Frog
  10. Flagship species of Mathikettan Shola NP mentioned—
    a) Melanobatrachus indicus (Galaxy Frog)
    b) Nasikabatrachus sahyadrensis
    c) Uraeotyphlus narayani
    d) Euphlyctis kerala
    e) Microhyla nilphamariensis
    Answer: a) Melanobatrachus indicus (Galaxy Frog)
  11. Kerala’s Governor at the time referenced—
    a) Arif Mohammed Khan
    b) Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar
    c) Tamilisai Soundararajan
    d) Ganeshi Lal
    e) R.N. Ravi
    Answer: b) Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar

SPORTS – MCQs

  1. Neeraj Chopra won Paris DL 2025 with an opening throw of—
    a) 86.62 m
    b) 87.66 m
    c) 87.88 m
    d) 88.16 m
    e) 90.23 m
    Answer: d) 88.16 m
  2. Which athlete set a South American record while placing third in Paris?
    a) Anderson Peters
    b) Julian Weber
    c) Jakub Vadlejch
    d) Arshad Nadeem
    e) Luiz Mauricio da Silva
    Answer: e) Luiz Mauricio da Silva
  3. Anderson Peters’ finishing position and mark in Paris were—
    a) 2nd – 87.88 m
    b) 3rd – 86.62 m
    c) 4th – 85.75 m
    d) 5th – 80.29 m
    e) 6th – 79.50 m
    Answer: d) 5th – 80.29 m
  4. Neeraj’s previous 90 m+ throw (90.23 m) occurred at—
    a) Paris DL 2025
    b) Lausanne 2023
    c) Zurich 2022
    d) Doha 2025
    e) Eugene 2024
    Answer: d) Doha 2025
  5. Neeraj’s total Diamond League titles after Paris 2025 became—
    a) 3
    b) 4
    c) 5
    d) 6
    e) 7
    Answer: c) 5
  6. The DL 2025 season finale is scheduled at—
    a) Paris
    b) Monaco
    c) Eugene
    d) Zurich
    e) Doha
    Answer: d) Zurich
  7. World Athletics rebranded from IAAF to its present name in—
    a) 2016
    b) 2017
    c) 2018
    d) 2019
    e) 2020
    Answer: d) 2019
  8. For DL 2025, “Diamond+” events first prize at regular meets is—
    a) $10,000
    b) $15,000
    c) $20,000
    d) $30,000
    e) $50,000
    Answer: c) $20,000
  9. The 12th World Para Athletics Championships (New Delhi) will be held on—
    a) Aug 10–18, 2025
    b) Sep 27–Oct 5, 2025
    c) Oct 15–23, 2025
    d) Nov 1–9, 2025
    e) Dec 5–13, 2025
    Answer: b) Sep 27–Oct 5, 2025
  10. Mascot unveiled by PCI for the 2025 Worlds is—
    a) Veer, a tiger with an arm prosthesis
    b) Asha, a cheetah with a blade
    c) Viraaj, a young elephant with a blade prosthesis
    d) Udaan, a falcon with wings of steel
    e) Shakti, a lioness with a carbon leg
    Answer: c) Viraaj, a young elephant with a blade prosthesis
  11. Brand ambassador named for New Delhi 2025 World Para Athletics—
    a) Deepika Padukone
    b) Priyanka Chopra
    c) Kangana Ranaut
    d) Anushka Sharma
    e) Vidya Balan
    Answer: c) Kangana Ranaut
  12. Hockey India–TN MoU: the FIH Men’s Junior World Cup 2025 will be hosted in—
    a) Coimbatore & Chennai
    b) Chennai & Madurai
    c) Chennai & Trichy
    d) Madurai only
    e) Chennai only
    Answer: b) Chennai & Madurai
  13. Total teams at the 2025 FIH Men’s Junior World Cup—
    a) 12
    b) 16
    c) 20
    d) 24
    e) 28
    Answer: d) 24
  14. TN Govt sanctioned approximately what amount to conduct the Junior World Cup?
    a) Rs 25 crore
    b) Rs 40 crore
    c) Rs 50 crore
    d) Rs 65 crore
    e) Rs 80 crore
    Answer: d) Rs 65 crore
READ MORE  Current Affairs Today: 28th April 2025 | Daily GK Update

IMPORTANT DAYS – MCQs

  1. International Day of Yoga 2025 marked the—
    a) 9th observance
    b) 10th observance
    c) 11th observance
    d) 12th observance
    e) 13th observance
    Answer: c) 11th observance
  2. The IDY 2025 theme was—
    a) Yoga for Wellness
    b) Yoga for Humanity
    c) Yoga for One Earth, One Health
    d) Yoga for Climate Action
    e) Yoga for Mindfulness
    Answer: c) Yoga for One Earth, One Health
  3. On IDY 2025, the national event led by PM was hosted in—
    a) Varanasi, UP
    b) Rishikesh, UK
    c) Bengaluru, KA
    d) Visakhapatnam, AP
    e) New Delhi, DL
    Answer: d) Visakhapatnam, AP
  4. Uttarakhand launched India’s first dedicated Yoga Policy on IDY 2025. The CM was—
    a) Yogi Adityanath
    b) Pushkar Singh Dhami
    c) Bhupesh Baghel
    d) Pinarayi Vijayan
    e) Hemant Soren
    Answer: b) Pushkar Singh Dhami
  5. World Hydrography Day falls on—
    a) June 5
    b) June 8
    c) June 18
    d) June 21
    e) June 30
    Answer: d) June 21
  6. Theme of WHD 2025 was—
    a) Hydrography: Mapping the Future
    b) Seabed Mapping: Enabling Ocean Action
    c) Safe Seas, Safe Ships
    d) Blue Economy through Hydrography
    e) Ocean Data for All
    Answer: b) Seabed Mapping: Enabling Ocean Action
  7. The IHO is headquartered in—
    a) Geneva
    b) Paris
    c) London
    d) Monaco
    e) New York
    Answer: d) Monaco
  8. UNGA recognized World Hydrography Day in which year?
    a) 2003
    b) 2005
    c) 2006
    d) 2010
    e) 2015
    Answer: b) 2005 (resolution adopted Nov 29, 2005; first observed 2006)
  9. International Day of the Celebration of the Solstice is on—
    a) June 20
    b) June 21
    c) June 22
    d) December 21 only
    e) March 21
    Answer: b) June 21
  10. UNGA resolution that proclaimed the Solstice Day was—
    a) A/RES/69/131
    b) A/RES/60/30
    c) A/RES/73/300
    d) A/RES/70/1
    e) A/RES/74/2
    Answer: c) A/RES/73/300
  11. An equinox occurs when the Sun is directly above—
    a) Tropic of Cancer
    b) Tropic of Capricorn
    c) Arctic Circle
    d) Antarctic Circle
    e) The Equator
    Answer: e) The Equator
  12. World Music Day 2025 celebrated its—
    a) 40th anniversary
    b) 41st anniversary
    c) 42nd anniversary
    d) 43rd anniversary
    e) 44th anniversary
    Answer: d) 43rd anniversary
  13. Theme for World Music Day 2025 was—
    a) Music for All
    b) Healing Through Harmony
    c) Sound of Sustainability
    d) Rhythm of Inclusion
    e) Harmony for Earth
    Answer: b) Healing Through Harmony
  14. World Music Day originated in 1982 under the culture minister—
    a) Jack Lang
    b) André Malraux
    c) Frédéric Mitterrand
    d) Renaud Donnedieu de Vabres
    e) Roselyne Bachelot
    Answer: a) Jack Lang
  15. Which Indian city hosted a 4-day “Metro Medley” festival for World Music Day 2025?
    a) Bengaluru
    b) Hyderabad
    c) Chennai
    d) Delhi
    e) Mumbai
    Answer: b) Hyderabad
  16. A Sufi musical “Jo Dooba So Paar” for World Music Day 2025 was staged in—
    a) Lucknow
    b) Jaipur
    c) Kolkata
    d) Bhopal
    e) Patna
    Answer: c) Kolkata
  17. Bengaluru’s set of World Music Day events in 2025 included—
    a) Jazz on the Ganges only
    b) Symphony at Cubbon Park only
    c) Indigo Indie Fest and A.R. Rahman tribute with workshops
    d) Only school band parades
    e) A single city-wide choir
    Answer: c) Indigo Indie Fest and A.R. Rahman tribute with workshops