NATIONAL AFFAIRS

1. The 196th ESIC meeting chaired by Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya decided to re-launch SPREE for which window?
   a) Aug 1, 2025 – Jan 31, 2026
   b) Jul 1, 2025 – Dec 31, 2025
   c) Oct 1, 2025 – Sep 30, 2026
   d) Apr 1, 2026 – Mar 31, 2027
   e) Jan 1, 2026 – Jun 30, 2026
   Answer: b)
   
2. ESIC’s Amnesty Scheme-2025 will be effective from—
   a) Jul 1, 2025 to Dec 31, 2025
   b) Aug 1, 2025 to Jan 31, 2026
   c) Oct 1, 2025 to Sep 30, 2026
   d) Jan 1, 2026 to Dec 31, 2026
   e) Apr 1, 2025 to Mar 31, 2026
   Answer: c)
   
3. After reforms, ESIC’s maximum damage rate on employer dues has been cut to—
   a) 2% per month (24% p.a.)
   b) 1% per month (12% p.a.)
   c) 0.5% per month (6% p.a.)
   d) 1.5% per month (18% p.a.)
   e) Flat 10% per annum
   Answer: b)
   
4. Which was the prior notional upper damage rate now replaced by a fixed rate?
   a) 10% per annum
   b) 12% per annum
   c) 18% per annum
   d) 25% per annum
   e) 30% per annum
   Answer: d)
   
5. At the PSB review meeting chaired by Nirmala Sitharaman, PSBs’ FY25 net profit was noted at ~
   a) ₹1.04 lakh crore
   b) ₹1.25 lakh crore
   c) ₹1.56 lakh crore
   d) ₹1.78 lakh crore
   e) ₹2.03 lakh crore
   Answer: d)
   
6. Between FY23 and FY25, total PSB business rose from ~₹203 lakh crore to—
   a) ₹231 lakh crore
   b) ₹245 lakh crore
   c) ₹251 lakh crore
   d) ₹262 lakh crore
   e) ₹270 lakh crore
   Answer: c)
   
7. PSBs’ NNPA improved to ~0.52% in FY25 from 1.24% in FY23. Their CRAR as of Mar-2025 was closest to—
   a) 12.0%
   b) 13.5%
   c) 15.0%
   d) 16.15%
   e) 17.5%
   Answer: d)
   
8. From Jan 1, 2026, MoRTH draft rules mandate which safety feature for all new two-wheelers?
   a) CBS
   b) EBD
   c) ABS
   d) Traction Control
   e) Cornering ABS
   Answer: c)
   
9. Along with ABS mandate, MoRTH requires OEMs to supply—
   a) One BIS helmet
   b) Two BIS helmets
   c) One ISI & one BIS helmet
   d) A helmet voucher only
   e) A riding jacket
   Answer: b)
   
10. Before this draft, ABS was compulsory only for models—
    a) ≤125 cc
    b) >125 cc
    c) >150 cc
    d) >200 cc
    e) >250 cc
    Answer: c)
    
11. Single-channel ABS typically controls braking on—
    a) Rear wheel only
    b) Front wheel only
    c) Both wheels independently
    d) Rear + linked front
    e) Front + linked rear
    Answer: b)
    
12. The revamped Sugamya Bharat App now includes all EXCEPT—
    a) AI chatbot
    b) Geo-tagged issue reporting
    c) Integrated scheme info for PwDs
    d) Offline paper submission module
    e) Notifications on accessibility circulars
    Answer: d)
    
13. Sugamya Bharat aligns with which flagship drive?
    a) Digital India
    b) Accessible India Campaign
    c) Skill India
    d) BharatNet
    e) Swachh Bharat (Urban)
    Answer: b)
    
14. India’s PwD share as per 2011 Census vs. NSS 2018 is approx.—
    a) 2.21% → 2.3%
    b) 2.0% → 2.1%
    c) 2.5% → 2.7%
    d) 1.8% → 2.0%
    e) 2.21% → 3.0%
    Answer: a)
    
15. The 5 GWh BESS facility inaugurated in Bengaluru is by—
    a) Amara Raja
    b) Exide Energy
    c) Lineage Power Pvt Ltd
    d) Ola Electric
    e) Reliance New Energy
    Answer: c)
    
16. New VGF announced for 30 GWh battery storage (additional to existing) totals—
    a) ₹3,700 crore
    b) ₹4,000 crore
    c) ₹5,400 crore
    d) ₹6,500 crore
    e) ₹8,000 crore
    Answer: c)
    
17. Total VGF bucket for storage after the new announcement becomes—
    a) ₹3,700 crore
    b) ₹5,400 crore
    c) ₹7,100 crore
    d) ₹9,100 crore
    e) ₹10,000 crore
    Answer: d)
    
18. MEPZ SEZ’s MoU with C-DAC will set up an IT Skill Centre for TAP region. TAP stands for—
    a) Telangana–Andhra–Puducherry
    b) Tamil Nadu–Andaman–Puducherry
    c) Tripura–Assam–Puducherry
    d) Tamil Nadu–Arunachal–Puducherry
    e) Telangana–Andaman–Punjab
    Answer: b)
    
19. The MEPZ–C-DAC skilling focus does NOT explicitly list—
    a) HPC & AI
    b) Quantum & Cyber Security
    c) IoT & Drones
    d) AR/VR Game Design
    e) Capacity-building for SEZ staff
    Answer: d)
    
20. Which sector accounted among top five for vocational training per the MSDE–IFC report?
    a) Aviation Turbine Maintenance
    b) Oil & Gas Refining
    c) Beauty & Wellness
    d) Shipping & Port Logistics
    e) Mining Services
    Answer: c)
    
21. According to PLFS 2023-24 analysis in the report, approx. what % of India’s workforce is in low-competency occupations?
    a) 66%
    b) 72%
    c) 80%
    d) 88%
    e) 90%+
    Answer: d)
    

INTERNATIONAL AFFAIRS

22. Salkhan (Sonbhadra) Fossils Park added to UNESCO Tentative List contains stromatolites dated ~
    a) 540 million years
    b) 1.4 billion years
    c) 65 million years
    d) 2.5 billion years
    e) 700 million years
    Answer: b)
    
23. These stromatolites at Salkhan are embedded primarily in—
    a) Aravalli schists
    b) Cuddapah shales
    c) Bhander limestone of Kaimur range
    d) Chhattisgarh quartzites
    e) Vindhyan sandstones of Rewa group
    Answer: c)
    
24. As of June 2025, India’s entries on UNESCO Tentative List total—
    a) 52
    b) 57
    c) 60
    d) 63
    e) 68
    Answer: d)
    

BANKING & FINANCE

25. RBI reported a Q4 FY25 current account—
    a) Deficit of USD 11.3 bn
    b) Surplus of USD 13.5 bn
    c) Surplus of USD 4.6 bn
    d) Deficit of USD 23.3 bn
    e) Surplus of USD 23.3 bn
    Answer: b)
    
26. India’s FY24 CAD narrowed to USD 23.3 bn mainly due to—
    a) Lower gold imports
    b) Higher net invisibles (services + remittances)
    c) FPI equity inflows
    d) Lower coal imports
    e) Forex interventions
    Answer: b)
    
27. In Q4 FY25, net services receipts were ~
    a) USD 31.3 bn
    b) USD 33.9 bn
    c) USD 42.7 bn
    d) USD 53.3 bn
    e) USD 59.5 bn
    Answer: d)
    
28. RBI expects India’s CAD in FY26 to average roughly—
    a) 0.2% of GDP
    b) 0.6% of GDP
    c) 0.8% of GDP
    d) 1.0% of GDP
    e) 1.4% of GDP
    Answer: d)
    
29. Instifi became a licensed Payment Aggregator—the only one headquartered in—
    a) Puducherry
    b) Goa
    c) Dadra & Nagar Haveli
    d) Lakshadweep
    e) Sikkim
    Answer: b)
    
30. RBI penalized which cooperative banks (₹1 lakh each) under Section 20 r/w 56 of BR Act?
    a) CCTB & KCB
    b) HDCCB & KDCCB
    c) KDCCB & CCTB
    d) HDCCB & KCB
    e) Only KCB
    Answer: b)
    
31. The cooperative bank fined for KYC/exposure guideline lapses included—
    a) HDCCB only
    b) KDCCB only
    c) CCTB
    d) KCB
    e) All four jointly
    Answer: c)
    
32. Karnataka Co-operative Bank’s penalty cited Section 47A(1)(c) with Sections—
    a) 46(4)(i) & 56
    b) 45(1)(b) & 56
    c) 20 & 21
    d) 22 & 35A
    e) 35B & 56
    Answer: a)
    

ECONOMY & BUSINESS

33. SEPC signed an MoU with which industry body to boost digital services exports?
    a) NASSCOM
    b) FICCI
    c) IAMAI
    d) CII
    e) ASSOCHAM
    Answer: c)
    
34. The SEPC–IAMAI MoU plans joint working groups primarily with—
    a) RBI & SEBI
    b) DPIIT & MCA
    c) MoC&I and relevant regulators
    d) MeitY & TRAI
    e) DGFT & NITI Aayog
    Answer: c)
    
35. A vertical not explicitly prioritized under the SEPC–IAMAI MoU list is—
    a) AdTech
    b) HealthTech
    c) SaaS
    d) Space Launch Vehicles
    e) Cross-border E-commerce
    Answer: d)
    
36. HDFC Mutual Fund’s open-market buy in Sundram Fasteners was ~
    a) 0.45% (₹95 cr) @ ₹1,050
    b) 0.65% (₹137 cr) @ ₹1,000
    c) 1.00% (₹210 cr) @ ₹1,050
    d) 0.59% (₹101 cr) @ ₹127.5
    e) 0.75% (₹150 cr) @ ₹1,000
    Answer: b)
    
37. Post the HDFC MF purchase, its stake in Sundram Fasteners became ~
    a) 4.27%
    b) 4.50%
    c) 4.75%
    d) 5.02%
    e) 5.50%
    Answer: d)
    

SPORTS

38. Praggnanandhaa’s UzChess Cup Masters 2025 win pushed his live rating to ~
    a) 2750
    b) 2767.0
    c) 2778.3
    d) 2784.2
    e) 2807.0
    Answer: c)
    
39. After Tashkent, Praggnanandhaa became—
    a) World #3, India #2
    b) World #4, India #1
    c) World #5, India #2
    d) World #2, India #1
    e) World #6, India #1
    Answer: b)
    
40. Which trio led the world live ratings ahead of Praggnanandhaa (post-event)?
    a) Carlsen, Ding, Nepomniachtchi
    b) Carlsen, Nakamura, Caruana
    c) Nakamura, Carlsen, Firouzja
    d) Caruana, Nepomniachtchi, Ding
    e) Carlsen, Anand, Caruana
    Answer: b)
    
41. ICC’s stop-clock in Tests: after two warnings in a spell, a third delay triggers—
    a) 2 penalty runs
    b) 3 penalty runs
    c) 5 penalty runs
    d) 10 penalty runs
    e) Over reduction
    Answer: c)
    
42. Under revised ODI ball rule from over 35, teams—
    a) Revert to a single brand-new ball
    b) Must use the older of the two
    c) Choose one of the two in better condition
    d) Alternate balls each over
    e) Use a supersub ball with chips
    Answer: c)
    
43. Deliberate short-run penalty now also empowers fielding captain to—
    a) Reduce one over from batting quota
    b) Choose which batter takes strike
    c) Demand third-umpire referral
    d) Replace the ball
    e) Enforce a Powerplay shift
    Answer: b)
    
44. Boundary catch clarification demands that if a fielder first touches the ball while airborne beyond the rope, they must—
    a) Re-throw to a teammate inside only
    b) Land on the boundary cushion then roll in
    c) Touch the ball only once while outside, then land fully inside
    d) Keep continuous contact while stepping in
    e) Have both feet off ground when taking catch
    Answer: c)
    
45. WTC 2025–27 already uses which of the newly approved conditions?
    a) ODI ball rule
    b) Stop-clock in Tests
    c) Deliberate short-run update
    d) Boundary catch rules
    e) Power Surge in Tests
    Answer: b)
    
46. At the inaugural Hockey Masters Cup 2025, champions were—
    a) Women: Punjab; Men: Maharashtra
    b) Women: Odisha; Men: Tamil Nadu
    c) Women: Haryana; Men: Chandigarh
    d) Women: Odisha; Men: Maharashtra
    e) Women: TN; Men: Odisha
    Answer: b)
    
47. Women’s bronze at Masters Cup went to—
    a) Odisha
    b) Punjab
    c) Haryana
    d) Maharashtra
    e) Chandigarh
    Answer: c)
    
48. Men’s bronze at Masters Cup went to—
    a) Chandigarh
    b) Odisha
    c) Haryana
    d) Punjab
    e) Maharashtra
    Answer: a)
    

BOOKS & AUTHORS

49. “A Billion Butterflies: A Life in Climate and Chaos Theory” is by—
    a) Raghuram Rajan
    b) Jagadish Shukla
    c) M.S. Swaminathan
    d) R.A. Mashelkar
    e) Ashok Jhunjhunwala
    Answer: b)
    
50. In 2007, Jagadish Shukla co-led an IPCC cohort that—
    a) Won the Kyoto Prize
    b) Won Nobel Peace Prize jointly with Al Gore
    c) Won the Templeton Prize
    d) Won the Abel Prize
    e) Won the Millennium Tech Prize
    Answer: b)
    
51. Publisher of “A Billion Butterflies” (India edition) is—
    a) Westland
    b) Rupa
    c) Pan Macmillan India
    d) Penguin Random House India
    e) HarperCollins India
    Answer: c)
    

IMPORTANT DAYS

52. National Insurance Awareness Day is observed on—
    a) June 26
    b) June 27
    c) June 28
    d) June 29
    e) June 30
    Answer: c)
    
53. Which is not a correct tax statement for life insurance in India?
    a) Premiums may qualify under Section 80C up to ₹1.5 lakh
    b) Death proceeds are exempt under Section 10(10D)
    c) Maturity proceeds are always tax-free irrespective of conditions
    d) It’s a legal contract with T&Cs
    e) The sector’s roots trace to 1818 Oriental Life Insurance Co.
    Answer: c)
    
54. The earliest organized life insurer in India referenced for context is—
    a) LIC (1956)
    b) National Insurance (1906)
    c) New India Assurance (1919)
    d) Oriental Life Insurance Company (1818)
    e) Bombay Mutual Life (1870)
    Answer: d)
    

EXTRA EDGE (APPLICATION & INFERENCE)

55. Which pair correctly matches initiative & ministry?
    a) SPREE — MoRTH
    b) SABB — MoHUA
    c) Sugamya Bharat App — MoHFW
    d) BESS VGF — MoF only
    e) SEPC — MeitY
    Answer: b)
    
56. Which site is both geologically significant and within a wildlife sanctuary?
    a) Aralam Butterfly Sanctuary
    b) Salkhan Fossils Park (inside Kaimoor WLS)
    c) Ranthambore Tiger Reserve buffer on DME
    d) Periyar National Park micro-substation pilot
    e) Jim Corbett bio-corridors on NH34
    Answer: b)
    
57. Which combo is incorrect?
    a) ESIC DG — Ashok Kumar Singh
    b) IAMAI — Societies Registration Act body
    c) UNESCO TL (India) — 63 entries (June 2025)
    d) RBI PA license — Instifi (Goa HQ)
    e) ICC HQ — Abu Dhabi
    Answer: e) (ICC HQ is Dubai)
    
58. Which pairing of rule & impact is MOST aligned to policy intent?
    a) Universal ABS → might raise prices slightly, but cut two-wheeler fatalities
    b) ODI single new ball → reduces reverse swing late overs
    c) Stop-clock → slows down over rate penalties
    d) Amnesty Scheme → raises damages rate sharply
    e) SABB → clinical treatment, not prevention
    Answer: a)
    
59. Which is LEAST tied to digital skilling?
    a) MEPZ–C-DAC IT Skill Centre
    b) Sugamya Bharat App AI chatbot
    c) SEPC–IAMAI export readiness for SaaS
    d) BESS VGF
    e) Skills for the Future report
    Answer: d)
    
60. Which statement is TRUE?
    a) ICC boundary catch rule now allows multi-touches outside field
    b) ODI will use two brand-new balls from 35th over
    c) Fielding side chooses striker after deliberate short-run
    d) Stop-clock penalties begin at first delay without warnings
    e) ODI will discontinue two-balls system entirely
    Answer: c)