NATIONAL AFFAIRS

  1. Across his 20–21 June 2025 tour, PM Modi inaugurated/founded projects worth approximately—
    a) ₹18,600 cr
    b) ₹24,400+ cr
    c) ₹20,000 cr
    d) ₹28,000 cr
    e) ₹5,200 cr
    Answer: b) ₹24,400+ cr
  2. On 20 June in Siwan, Bihar, the number of development projects launched/inaugurated was—
    a) 20
    b) 24
    c) 28
    d) 32
    e) 40
    Answer: c) 28
  3. The new Vaishali–Deoria railway line project inaugurated in Bihar is valued at—
    a) ₹250 cr
    b) ₹300 cr
    c) ₹400+ cr
    d) ₹520 cr
    e) ₹800 cr
    Answer: c) ₹400+ cr
  4. India’s 71st Vande Bharat Express flagged off during the visit connected—
    a) Patna–Lucknow
    b) Patliputra–Gorakhpur
    c) Varanasi–Ayodhya
    d) Muzaffarpur–Deoria
    e) Hajipur–Siwan
    Answer: b) Patliputra–Gorakhpur
  5. The Patliputra–Gorakhpur Vande Bharat’s run (≈384 km) has an indicative travel time of—
    a) ~5 h
    b) ~6 h
    c) ~7 h
    d) ~8 h
    e) ~9 h
    Answer: c) ~7 h
  6. Which factory shipped its first export locomotive to the Republic of Guinea?
    a) Marhowrah Diesel Locomotive Factory
    b) Chittaranjan Locomotive Works
    c) Varanasi Diesel Loco Works
    d) Perambur ICF
    e) MCF Rae Bareli
    Answer: a) Marhowrah Diesel Locomotive Factory
  7. In Bhubaneswar on 20 June 2025, PM launched how many projects (~₹18,600 cr)?
    a) 75
    b) 90
    c) 100
    d) 105
    e) 125
    Answer: d) 105
  8. Which document was released in Bhubaneswar to mark one year of the State Government?
    a) Odisha@25 Vision
    b) Odisha Vision Document
    c) Mission Shakti 2.0
    d) Ama Odisha Blueprint
    e) Odisha@2047 White Paper
    Answer: b) Odisha Vision Document
  9. The first passenger train to which Odisha district was flagged off?
    a) Nabarangpur
    b) Boudh
    c) Malkangiri
    d) Kandhamal
    e) Nuapada
    Answer: b) Boudh
  10. Sustainable mobility push in Bhubaneswar included launch of—
    a) 50 hydrogen buses
    b) 100 electric buses
    c) 200 CNG buses
    d) Metro Phase-I
    e) E-rickshaw scheme only
    Answer: b) 100 electric buses
  11. On 21 June 2025, the PM led the 11th IDY celebrations at—
    a) Rishikesh
    b) Varanasi
    c) Rajpath, Delhi
    d) Visakhapatnam
    e) Ujjain
    Answer: d) Visakhapatnam
  12. Rashtrapati Tapovan opens to public from—
    a) 19 June 2025
    b) 21 June 2025
    c) 24 June 2025
    d) 01 July 2025
    e) 15 July 2025
    Answer: c) 24 June 2025
  13. Rashtrapati Niketan (Presidential Retreat) opens to public from—
    a) 24 June 2025
    b) 01 July 2025
    c) 05 July 2025
    d) 10 July 2025
    e) 15 July 2025
    Answer: b) 01 July 2025
  14. At Rashtrapati Niketan, the President inaugurated a new—
    a) 500-seat convention hall
    b) 200-seat amphitheatre
    c) Herbal garden complex
    d) Museum gallery
    e) Ropeway
    Answer: b) 200-seat amphitheatre
  15. A postal stamp released during the Uttarakhand visit commemorated—
    a) 75 yrs of Uttarakhand Police
    b) 100 yrs of Kedarnath Temple restoration
    c) 125 yrs of Raj Bhavan, Nainital
    d) 50 yrs of Corbett Tiger Reserve
    e) 25 yrs of Statehood
    Answer: c) 125 yrs of Raj Bhavan, Nainital
  16. MNRE’s RTS/DRE Startup Challenge total prize pool is—
    a) ₹1.5 cr
    b) ₹2.0 cr
    c) ₹2.3 cr
    d) ₹3.0 cr
    e) ₹5.0 cr
    Answer: c) ₹2.3 cr
  17. Last date to apply for the MNRE Startup Challenge on Startup India portal—
    a) 20 July 2025
    b) 31 July 2025
    c) 10 August 2025
    d) 20 August 2025
    e) 31 August 2025
    Answer: d) 20 August 2025
  18. Top three cash awards in the MNRE challenge (1st/2nd/3rd) are—
    a) ₹1 cr/₹60L/₹20L
    b) ₹1 cr/₹50L/₹30L
    c) ₹75L/₹50L/₹25L
    d) ₹50L/₹30L/₹10L
    e) ₹1.2 cr/₹60L/₹30L
    Answer: b) ₹1 cr/₹50L/₹30L
  19. Consolation prizes (10) in the MNRE challenge are—
    a) ₹2L each
    b) ₹3L each
    c) ₹5L each
    d) ₹7.5L each
    e) ₹10L each
    Answer: c) ₹5L each
  20. Union Home Minister laid foundations for which pair of institutions in Nava Raipur?
    a) NFSU & NIA campus
    b) CFSL & BPR&D academy
    c) NFSU & CFSL campuses
    d) LNJN NICFS & NFSU
    e) NCB academy & CFSL
    Answer: c) NFSU & CFSL campuses
  21. Combined capex for NFSU and CFSL campuses in Chhattisgarh is closest to—
    a) ₹200 cr
    b) ₹223 cr
    c) ₹268 cr
    d) ₹300 cr
    e) ₹345 cr
    Answer: c) ₹268 cr
  22. Which initiative in Chhattisgarh was highlighted as a bridge for youth/startups?
    a) C-HUB
    b) e-Sevakendra
    c) i-Hub
    d) Atal Tinkering Hall
    e) YuvaConnect
    Answer: c) i-Hub
  23. Bihar SEC’s mobile e-voting will initially be used for—
    a) Assembly elections
    b) Panchayat polls
    c) Lok Sabha bypolls
    d) Municipal/urban local body polls
    e) Legislative Council polls
    Answer: d) Municipal/urban local body polls
  24. Security in Bihar’s e-voting includes all except
    a) Blockchain
    b) Liveness detection
    c) Facial recognition
    d) Quantum key distribution
    e) Audit trail akin to VVPAT
    Answer: d) Quantum key distribution
  25. Which Android app is explicitly named for Bihar’s e-voting?
    a) eVote-Bihar
    b) e-Voting SECBHR
    c) Bihar Vote+
    d) m-Nirvachan
    e) SEC-Cast
    Answer: b) e-Voting SECBHR
  26. Approximate registered and expected participants for Bihar e-voting are—
    a) 5k registered; 20k expected
    b) 10k registered; 50k expected
    c) 25k registered; 75k expected
    d) 50k registered; 100k expected
    e) 100k registered; 250k expected
    Answer: b) 10k registered; 50k expected
  27. The Department of Posts marked IDY 2025 at—
    a) Dak Bhavan, Delhi
    b) Meghdoot Bhawan, CPMG Delhi Circle
    c) Sansad Marg HPO
    d) GPO Mumbai
    e) CGO Complex
    Answer: b) Meghdoot Bhawan, CPMG Delhi Circle
  28. A philatelic highlight by DoP on IDY 2025 did not include
    a) 7 picture postcards
    b) Special cover with cancellation
    c) Keychains from Surya Namaskar stamp series designs
    d) Nationwide circle-level observances
    e) Promotion of Common Yoga Protocol
    Answer: b) Special cover with cancellation
  29. ICETAB device launched at CBIC Conclave primarily targets—
    a) Import valuation
    b) Export examination digitization
    c) GST invoice matching
    d) ICEGATE downtime monitoring
    e) Passenger baggage checks
    Answer: b) Export examination digitization
  30. A stated outcome for ICETAB is improvement in—
    a) Forex reserves table
    b) Logistics Performance Index ranking
    c) WPI inflation
    d) CPI headline
    e) FRBM compliance
    Answer: b) Logistics Performance Index ranking
  31. Gharial conservation programme launched in Katarniaghat (UP) released how many juveniles?
    a) 5
    b) 6
    c) 7
    d) 9
    e) 11
    Answer: c) 7
  32. The river stretch for the gharial release is—
    a) Sarayu
    b) Rapti
    c) Gerua (tributary of Ghagra)
    d) Gomti
    e) Sharda
    Answer: c) Gerua (tributary of Ghagra)
  33. Katarniaghat WLS forms part of—
    a) Pilibhit Tiger Reserve
    b) Dudhwa Tiger Reserve
    c) Valmiki Tiger Reserve
    d) Corbett Landscape
    e) Sohagi Barwa WLS complex
    Answer: b) Dudhwa Tiger Reserve
READ MORE  6 December Current Affairs 2024

INTERNATIONAL AFFAIRS

  1. The 51st G7 Summit (15–17 June 2025) was held at—
    a) Ottawa, Ontario
    b) Kananaskis, Alberta
    c) Quebec City, Quebec
    d) Vancouver, British Columbia
    e) Banff, Alberta
    Answer: b) Kananaskis, Alberta
  2. The host of the 51st G7 was—
    a) Justin Trudeau
    b) Mark Carney
    c) Pierre Poilievre
    d) Chrystia Freeland
    e) Stephen Harper
    Answer: b) Mark Carney
  3. The 51st G7 marked how many years since the first G7 meeting (Rambouillet, 1975)?
    a) 45 years
    b) 47 years
    c) 50 years
    d) 52 years
    e) 55 years
    Answer: c) 50 years
  4. Which of the following was not listed as a participating G7 leader?
    a) Emmanuel Macron
    b) Friedrich Merz
    c) Giorgia Meloni
    d) Shigeru Ishiba
    e) Olaf Scholz
    Answer: e) Olaf Scholz (text names Merz as Chancellor in that context)
  5. Invited Outreach leaders at G7 included all except
    a) Australia
    b) Brazil
    c) India
    d) South Korea
    e) Russia
    Answer: e) Russia
  6. PM Modi’s appearance at G7 2025 was his—
    a) 3rd consecutive
    b) 4th consecutive
    c) 5th consecutive
    d) 6th consecutive
    e) 7th consecutive
    Answer: d) 6th consecutive
  7. A joint focus area explicitly mentioned in G7 outcomes—
    a) Deep-sea mining permits
    b) Critical minerals supply chain security
    c) WTO Appellate Body revival
    d) Space debris treaty
    e) Global tax at 25%
    Answer: b) Critical minerals supply chain security
  8. Canada announced new military support for Ukraine valued at—
    a) US$ 500 mn grant
    b) US$ 1 bn grant
    c) >US$ 2 bn aid + US$ 2.3 bn ERA loan
    d) US$ 3 bn grant
    e) US$ 5 bn ERA loan
    Answer: c) >US$ 2 bn aid + US$ 2.3 bn ERA loan
  9. The 55th Paris Air Show (16–22 June 2025) venue is—
    a) Paris Expo Porte de Versailles
    b) Parc des Expositions de Paris-Le Bourget
    c) Disneyland Paris Arena
    d) Stade de France
    e) Orly Aero Park
    Answer: b) Parc des Expositions de Paris-Le Bourget
  10. On the sidelines, India–France engagement launched which programme?
    a) Rafale M (Marine) Programme
    b) Rafale F4 for IAF only
    c) Mirage 2000 upgrade III
    d) A400M co-production
    e) Tejas Mk1A export
    Answer: a) Rafale M (Marine) Programme
  11. Reliance Aerostructure–Dassault pact targets manufacturing which jets in India?
    a) Rafale M
    b) Rafale F5
    c) Falcon 2000
    d) Falcon 8X
    e) ATR 72
    Answer: c) Falcon 2000
  12. Mahindra Aerostructures’ multi-year deal with Aernnova is valued at about—
    a) US$ 100 mn
    b) US$ 200 mn
    c) US$ 300 mn
    d) US$ 500 mn
    e) US$ 750 mn
    Answer: c) US$ 300 mn
  13. Airbus secured aircraft orders at the show worth approximately—
    a) US$ 10 bn
    b) US$ 15 bn
    c) US$ 18 bn
    d) US$ 21 bn
    e) US$ 25 bn
    Answer: d) US$ 21 bn
  14. OECD’s ‘Global Drought Outlook’ projects drought costs rising by at least—
    a) 15% by 2030
    b) 25% by 2035
    c) 35% by 2035
    d) 40% by 2040
    e) 50% by 2050
    Answer: c) 35% by 2035
  15. According to the OECD report, global land affected by drought has—
    a) Halved since 1900
    b) Doubled between 1900 and 2020
    c) Tripled since 1980
    d) Stayed flat since 1950
    e) Declined since 2000
    Answer: b) Doubled between 1900 and 2020
  16. A cited impact of severe droughts includes up to—
    a) 10% fall in river trade volumes
    b) 20% drop in hydro power
    c) 40% fall in fluvial trade; >25% drop in hydro power
    d) 60% reduction in groundwater recharge in 1 year
    e) 80% drop in crop yields globally
    Answer: c) 40% fall in fluvial trade; >25% drop in hydro power

BANKING & FINANCE

  1. SEBI eased onboarding for FPIs investing solely in—
    a) Corporate bonds
    b) Municipal bonds
    c) Indian Government Securities (G-secs)
    d) Hybrid funds
    e) ETFs only
    Answer: c) Indian Government Securities (G-secs)
  2. Which investment route allows unrestricted access to certain G-secs?
    a) General route
    b) VRR
    c) FAR
    d) ECB route
    e) FVCI route
    Answer: c) FAR
  3. VRR requires investors to retain funds for at least—
    a) 1 year
    b) 2 years
    c) 3 years
    d) 5 years
    e) 7 years
    Answer: c) 3 years
  4. RBI revised PSL target for SFBs (effective FY26) to—
    a) 40% of ANBC/CEOBE
    b) 50% of ANBC/CEOBE
    c) 55% of ANBC/CEOBE
    d) 60% of ANBC/CEOBE
    e) 65% of ANBC/CEOBE
    Answer: d) 60% of ANBC/CEOBE
  5. Earlier PSL target for SFBs before revision was—
    a) 40%
    b) 50%
    c) 60%
    d) 70%
    e) 75%
    Answer: e) 75%
  6. From FY26, within the 60% PSL target, the ‘additional component’ becomes—
    a) 10%
    b) 15%
    c) 20%
    d) 25%
    e) 35%
    Answer: c) 20%
  7. RBI issued the SFB PSL changes under—
    a) Section 35A, BR Act
    b) Section 22(1), BR Act 1949
    c) Section 45L, RBI Act
    d) FEMA Section 6
    e) PSS Act 2007
    Answer: b) Section 22(1), BR Act 1949
  8. RBI penalty on Fino Payments Bank in June 2025 was approximately—
    a) ₹9.6 lakh
    b) ₹19.6 lakh
    c) ₹29.6 lakh
    d) ₹39.6 lakh
    e) ₹59.6 lakh
    Answer: c) ₹29.6 lakh
  9. The violation by Fino involved exceeding the EOD customer balance ceiling of—
    a) ₹1 lakh
    b) ₹1.5 lakh
    c) ₹2 lakh
    d) ₹2.5 lakh
    e) ₹3 lakh
    Answer: c) ₹2 lakh
  10. SEBI also cleared a co-investment framework for which AIF categories?
    a) I & II
    b) II & III
    c) I & III
    d) Only III
    e) All I/II/III
    Answer: a) I & II
READ MORE  Current Affairs Today: 27 june 2025

ECONOMY & BUSINESS

  1. Coffee Board reported FY26-to-date export growth of approximately—
    a) 10%
    b) 15%
    c) 20%
    d) 25%
    e) 30%
    Answer: d) 25%
  2. FY24 coffee exports rose ~40.2% reaching about—
    a) US$ 1.286 bn
    b) US$ 1.503 bn
    c) US$ 1.803 bn
    d) US$ 2.100 bn
    e) US$ 2.303 bn
    Answer: c) US$ 1.803 bn
  3. India’s global rank in coffee exports is—
    a) 3rd
    b) 4th
    c) 5th
    d) 6th
    e) 7th
    Answer: c) 5th
  4. Largest destination region for Indian coffee exports—
    a) North America
    b) Europe
    c) East Asia
    d) Middle East
    e) Africa
    Answer: b) Europe
  5. A digital facilitation mentioned by Coffee Board for exporters—
    a) Online RCMC with digital signature
    b) e-Way bill exemption
    c) Zero duty scrips
    d) SDR-linked credit
    e) e-Invoice waiver
    Answer: a) Online RCMC with digital signature
  6. India’s share in global coffee production is roughly—
    a) 2%
    b) 3.5%
    c) 5%
    d) 7%
    e) 10%
    Answer: b) 3.5%

APPOINTMENTS & RESIGNATIONS

  1. K. Paul Thomas (ESAF SFB MD & CEO) was elected Chairperson of—
    a) MFIN
    b) FIDC
    c) Sa-Dhan
    d) IBA SFB Council
    e) SIDBI Board
    Answer: c) Sa-Dhan
  2. Sa-Dhan is recognised by RBI as—
    a) SRO
    b) SRO-II
    c) OTD
    d) ND-SRO
    e) DSA
    Answer: a) SRO
  3. Which of the following is not listed among newly elected Sa-Dhan governing members?
    a) G. Kiran Kumar
    b) Rahul Gupta
    c) Jagadish Ramadugu
    d) Pravin Thigale
    e) Uday Kotak
    Answer: e) Uday Kotak

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

  1. BSNL launched India’s first fully indigenous Quantum-5G FWA at—
    a) Bengaluru
    b) Pune
    c) Hyderabad (Ameerpet Exchange)
    d) Visakhapatnam
    e) Chandigarh
    Answer: c) Hyderabad (Ameerpet Exchange)
  2. The FWA service uses a D2D platform enabling CPE authentication without—
    a) IMEI
    b) SIM cards
    c) MAC address
    d) QR keys
    e) PKI certs
    Answer: b) SIM cards
  3. Advertised downlink/uplink speeds and latency are about—
    a) 500/50 Mbps; <20 ms
    b) 700/100 Mbps; <15 ms
    c) 980/140 Mbps; <10 ms
    d) 1.2/0.2 Gbps; <5 ms
    e) 2.0/0.5 Gbps; <2 ms
    Answer: c) 980/140 Mbps; <10 ms
  4. A key advantage of the FWA rollout claimed is—
    a) No spectrum needed
    b) No trenching/fibre-laying (plug-and-play)
    c) No towers needed
    d) Works only on mmWave
    e) Satellite backhaul only
    Answer: b) No trenching/fibre-laying (plug-and-play)
  5. Approximate household coverage in Hyderabad at launch—
    a) ~45%
    b) ~60%
    c) ~75%
    d) ~85%
    e) ~95%
    Answer: d) ~85%
  6. Planned expansion by Sept 2025 includes all except
    a) Bengaluru
    b) Pune
    c) Visakhapatnam
    d) Gwalior
    e) Jaipur
    Answer: e) Jaipur
  7. The domestic stack elements cited include—
    a) Core, RAN & CPE
    b) Core only
    c) RAN only
    d) CPE only
    e) OSS only
    Answer: a) Core, RAN & CPE

SPORTS

  1. India topped the Archery Asia Cup 2025 Stage-2 medals with—
    a) 7 (2G, 3S, 2B)
    b) 8 (3G, 3S, 2B)
    c) 9 (2G, 6S, 1B)
    d) 10 (4G, 5S, 1B)
    e) 11 (5G, 4S, 2B)
    Answer: c) 9 (2G, 6S, 1B)
  2. Men’s Individual Compound gold was won by—
    a) Joshua Mahon
    b) Kushal Dalal
    c) Rishabh Yadav
    d) Abhishek Verma
    e) Atanu Das
    Answer: b) Kushal Dalal
  3. Scoreline in Kushal Dalal’s final vs Joshua Mahon—
    a) 150–147
    b) 149–143
    c) 148–146
    d) 147–145
    e) 146–144
    Answer: b) 149–143
  4. Women’s Individual Compound gold result in the all-Indian final—
    a) 150–149 (Salve)
    b) 148–147 (Budde)
    c) 147–146 (Salve)
    d) 146–144 (Salve)
    e) 145–143 (Budde)
    Answer: d) 146–144 (Salve)
  5. Compound Women’s Team (U-21) qualification points world record (new) set by India—
    a) 2,056
    b) 2,076
    c) 2,091
    d) 2,101
    e) 2,121
    Answer: d) 2,101
  6. The previous U-21 world record broken by the same Indian trio was—
    a) 2,056 (2022)
    b) 2,064 (2023)
    c) 2,076 (2023)
    d) 2,091 (2024)
    e) 2,100 (2024)
    Answer: c) 2,076 (2023)
  7. India finished ahead of which two nations on the overall medals table?
    a) Korea & China
    b) Indonesia & Kazakhstan
    c) Japan & Iran
    d) Turkey & Malaysia
    e) Thailand & Vietnam
    Answer: b) Indonesia & Kazakhstan
  8. Event venue for Stage-2 (15–20 June 2025) was—
    a) Kallang, Singapore
    b) Toa Payoh, Singapore
    c) Bukit Gombak Stadium, Singapore
    d) National Stadium, Singapore
    e) Jurong West, Singapore
    Answer: c) Bukit Gombak Stadium, Singapore

IMPORTANT DAYS

  1. UN Public Service Day is observed on—
    a) 21 June
    b) 22 June
    c) 23 June
    d) 24 June
    e) 25 June
    Answer: c) 23 June
  2. UNGA resolution proclaiming UN Public Service Day—
    a) A/RES/57/277
    b) A/RES/60/30
    c) A/RES/65/189
    d) A/RES/73/300
    e) A/RES/69/131
    Answer: a) A/RES/57/277
  3. First UN Public Service Day was observed in—
    a) 2001
    b) 2002
    c) 2003
    d) 2004
    e) 2005
    Answer: c) 2003
  4. The 2025 UN Public Service Forum & Awards venue—
    a) Tashkent, Uzbekistan
    b) Samarkand, Uzbekistan
    c) Almaty, Kazakhstan
    d) Baku, Azerbaijan
    e) Astana, Kazakhstan
    Answer: b) Samarkand, Uzbekistan
  5. Theme for UN Public Service Day 2025—
    a) Transforming Governance for 2030
    b) Public Value for All
    c) Five Years to 2030: Accelerating Public Service Delivery for a Sustainable Future
    d) Digital State by Design
    e) Service, Equity, Sustainability
    Answer: c) Five Years to 2030: Accelerating Public Service Delivery for a Sustainable Future
  6. International Widows Day is marked on—
    a) 20 June
    b) 21 June
    c) 22 June
    d) 23 June
    e) 24 June
    Answer: d) 23 June
  7. UNGA resolution designating International Widows Day—
    a) A/RES/60/30
    b) A/RES/57/277
    c) A/RES/65/189
    d) A/RES/73/300
    e) A/RES/69/131
    Answer: c) A/RES/65/189
  8. International Widows Day was initiated in 2005 by—
    a) Gates Foundation
    b) Loomba Foundation
    c) Ford Foundation
    d) Oxfam
    e) Amnesty International
    Answer: b) Loomba Foundation
  9. First UN-recognised International Widows Day was observed in—
    a) 2009
    b) 2010
    c) 2011
    d) 2012
    e) 2013
    Answer: c) 2011
  10. International Olympic Day is observed annually on—
    a) 21 June
    b) 22 June
    c) 23 June
    d) 24 June
    e) 25 June
    Answer: c) 23 June
  11. IOC was founded on 23 June 1894 at—
    a) Sorbonne, Paris
    b) Lausanne, Switzerland
    c) Athens, Greece
    d) London, UK
    e) Berlin, Germany
    Answer: a) Sorbonne, Paris
  12. Theme/slogan for Olympic Day 2025—
    a) Let’s Move?
    b) Move Together
    c) Sport for All
    d) Faster Together
    e) Move the World
    Answer: a) Let’s Move?
  13. The first modern Olympics following IOC’s formation were hosted in—
    a) Paris 1900
    b) Athens 1896
    c) St. Louis 1904
    d) London 1908
    e) Stockholm 1912
    Answer: b) Athens 1896
READ MORE  Current Affairs Today: 04th March 2025 | Daily GK Update

Extra Set (Quick-fire, still from your content)

  1. The MNRE challenge focus areas include all except
    a) Affordability
    b) Resilience
    c) Inclusivity
    d) Environmental Sustainability
    e) Exclusive utility-scale hydrogen hubs
    Answer: e) Exclusive utility-scale hydrogen hubs
  2. Key tech domains invited under MNRE challenge include—
    a) Only battery chemistry startups
    b) Green tech, IoT, AI, blockchain, construction, energy hardware, fintech, waste mgmt
    c) Only fintechs
    d) Only rooftop EPCs
    e) Only PSU-backed entities
    Answer: b) Green tech, IoT, AI, blockchain, construction, energy hardware, fintech, waste mgmt
  3. Bihar’s e-voting uses which additional digital tool for results?
    a) NFC tally
    b) OCR for counting & result declaration
    c) RFID ballot
    d) QR vote slip
    e) OTP-only aggregation
    Answer: b) OCR for counting & result declaration
  4. Which ministry observed IDY 2025 with 7 picture postcards issuance?
    a) MoYAS
    b) MoHFW
    c) MoC (Department of Posts)
    d) MoCA
    e) MEA
    Answer: c) MoC (Department of Posts)
  5. ICETAB chiefly drives—
    a) Paperless export inspection workflow
    b) Tariff rate quotas
    c) Remission of duties
    d) FTP target setting
    e) Drawback schedule updates
    Answer: a) Paperless export inspection workflow
  6. Gharial status per the programme context is—
    a) Near Threatened
    b) Vulnerable
    c) Endangered
    d) Critically Endangered
    e) Data Deficient
    Answer: d) Critically Endangered
  7. The Ghagra River is also known as—
    a) Gandak
    b) Rapti
    c) Saryu
    d) Karnali/Khakra (in Nepal region)
    e) Betwa
    Answer: d) Karnali/Khakra (in Nepal region)
  8. Paris Air Show periodicity is—
    a) Annual
    b) Biennial
    c) Triennial
    d) Quadrennial
    e) Irregular
    Answer: b) Biennial
  9. Which aircraft family is not named in Mahindra–Aernnova contract coverage?
    a) Airbus families
    b) Embraer families
    c) Boeing 777X
    d) —
    e) —
    Answer: c) Boeing 777X
  10. OECD’s HQ city—
    a) Geneva
    b) Brussels
    c) Paris
    d) Vienna
    e) The Hague
    Answer: c) Paris
  11. SEBI Board meeting number and city for the relaxations—
    a) 210th; Mumbai
    b) 210th; Delhi
    c) 200th; Mumbai
    d) 205th; Hyderabad
    e) 212th; Mumbai
    Answer: a) 210th; Mumbai
  12. SFBs must allocate at least to specified PSL sub-sectors—
    a) 20% of ANBC/CEOBE
    b) 25% of ANBC/CEOBE
    c) 30% of ANBC/CEOBE
    d) 40% of ANBC/CEOBE
    e) 50% of ANBC/CEOBE
    Answer: d) 40% of ANBC/CEOBE
  13. Fino’s breach was identified during ISE assessing position as of—
    a) 31 Mar 2023
    b) 31 Mar 2024
    c) 30 Sep 2024
    d) 31 Dec 2024
    e) 31 Mar 2025
    Answer: b) 31 Mar 2024
  14. Coffee production in India annually is around—
    a) 1.6 lakh tonnes
    b) 2.6 lakh tonnes
    c) 3.6 lakh tonnes
    d) 4.6 lakh tonnes
    e) 5.6 lakh tonnes
    Answer: c) 3.6 lakh tonnes
  15. Key Indian coffee-growing states include all except
    a) Karnataka
    b) Kerala
    c) Tamil Nadu
    d) Andhra Pradesh (major share)
    e) —
    Answer: d) Andhra Pradesh (major share) (primary are KA, KL, TN)
  16. Sa-Dhan HQ is located in—
    a) Mumbai
    b) New Delhi
    c) Bengaluru
    d) Hyderabad
    e) Chennai
    Answer: b) New Delhi
  17. BSNL’s expansion list includes which UTs by Sept 2025?
    a) Delhi & J&K
    b) Chandigarh & Puducherry
    c) Ladakh & Lakshadweep
    d) DNHDD & Daman
    e) Andaman & Nicobar
    Answer: b) Chandigarh & Puducherry
  18. Archery Asia Cup Stage-2 had participation from over—
    a) 100 archers; 10 countries
    b) 150 archers; 15 countries
    c) 200 archers; 21 countries
    d) 250 archers; 25 countries
    e) 300 archers; 30 countries
    Answer: c) 200 archers; 21 countries
  19. UN Olympic Day proposal year and proposer—
    a) 1947; Dr. Josef Gruss
    b) 1948; Baron de Coubertin
    c) 1952; Avery Brundage
    d) 1964; Juan Antonio Samaranch
    e) 1972; Willi Daume
    Answer: a) 1947; Dr. Josef Gruss
  20. Formal adoption of Olympic Day occurred at—
    a) 42nd IOC Session, St. Moritz (Jan 1948)
    b) 41st IOC Session, Stockholm (1947)
    c) 43rd IOC Session, London (1948)
    d) Lausanne Executive Meet (1949)
    e) Paris Charter (1950)
    Answer: a) 42nd IOC Session, St. Moritz (Jan 1948)